[Disclaimer: This series almost sounds like Bible study. For those who are put off by that sort of religiosity, my apologies. But let's consider this a literary exercise - here's an historic piece of literature and we have all of these preconceived notions of what it's talking about. But what is it really saying? hmmm...]
In the most instances of the use of the word, gospel is just part of the sentence, giving no hint of what is intended by the word. Some examples:
Jesus was going throughout all Galilee, teaching in their synagogues and proclaiming the gospel of the kingdom and healing every kind of disease and every kind of sickness...
~Matt 4:23
Jesus was going through all the cities and villages, teaching in their synagogues and proclaiming the gospel of the kingdom and healing every kind of disease and every kind of sickness
~Matt 9:35 (almost an exact repeat of the previous instance)
the BLIND RECEIVE SIGHT and the lame walk, the lepers are cleansed and the deaf hear, the dead are raised up, and the POOR HAVE THE GOSPEL PREACHED TO THEM
~Matt 11:5
The beginning of the gospel of Jesus Christ, the Son of God.
~Mark 1:1
Now after John had been taken into custody, Jesus came into Galilee, preaching the gospel of God, and saying, "The time is fulfilled, and the kingdom of God is at hand; repent and believe in the gospel.
~Mark 1:14-15
The gospel must first be preached to all the nations.
~Mark 13:10
The Law and the Prophets were proclaimed until John; since that time the gospel of the kingdom of God has been preached, and everyone is forcing his way into it.
~Luke 16:16
And on it goes.
Now, if we substitute the meaning for the word (ie, good news, for gospel) it would sound like this:
Jesus was going throughout all Galilee, teaching in their synagogues and proclaiming the good news of the kingdom...
The beginning of the good news of Jesus Christ, the Son of God...
Now after John had been taken into custody, Jesus came into Galilee, preaching the good news of God, and saying, "The time is fulfilled, and the kingdom of God is at hand; repent and believe in the good news..."
The Law and the Prophets were proclaimed until John; since that time the good news of the kingdom of God has been preached, and everyone is forcing his way into it...
You can find a whole listing of the usages of the word here. Reading through these (especially the instances in Matt, Mark, Luke and John), and the context of each one, what commonalities do you find? What intrigues you? What does the word seem to suggest it's talking about to you?
9 comments:
As only three of the gospel authors were Jewish, only two of whom even use the word "gospel" [in the King James], it might be best to find out what the Jewish authors meant when they used the word in Greek. What Hebrew word [or Aramaic, if you're one of those] did the Jewish authors translate from. Some words do not translate well, and often some nuance is lost in the translation.
Either way, what difference does it make what the word "Gospel" means? It IS good news; it is a doctrine. Either way we are still blessed by its delivery. But then, perhaps we are blessed because of who introduced it to us.
As an aside, though the terms "Gospel of the Kingdom" and "Gospel of God" are often used synonymously, there is actually a doctrinal difference between the two... neither of which actually addresses the question, "What does 'Gospel' mean?"
Having said all that, what's your point with this post?
What difference does it make? Well, as it's pretty central to our faith, I would think that having a good grasp of what the authors meant when they used it in their context would be pretty important. A point with which I'm sure you agree.
I'm curious, Eric, what makes you think there is a doctrinal difference between Gospel of the Kingdom and Gospel of God (or Gospel of Christ, as is sometimes used, too)? What would that difference be, according to you? Is this an opinion of yours or one you've heard others espouse?
No catch, just curious.
As a note, I'll point out that as far as I know, the Bible itself does not distinguish a difference when it uses the various expressions (the gospel, the gospel of Christ, the gospel of God, the gospel of the Kingdom...)
We've had this discussion before. Neither you or ER were impressed. I don't expect YOU to be now... but...
The "Kingdom of God" is within us: righteousness and holiness via the grace imparted by the indwelling Holy Spirit.
The "Kingdom of Heaven" is a literal Kingdom into which all believers are granted entrance: a Kingdom with its Capital City, Jerusalem, on this Earth. It is a physical Kingdom, with a physical King [joint Kings actually, for one-thousand years-- Jesus AND David].
You said above:
"What difference does it make? Well, as it's pretty central to our faith..."
The Gospel yes, but the definition of the word? Not so much. It is the Gospel "message" that presents the gift of salvation, not the definition of the word "gospel". The definition of "Gospel" does not encompass the fact that Christ died for our sins, laid 3 days dead in a tomb, rose the 3rd day, and after 40 days of infallible proofs [as to his resurrection] ascended into Heaven. The definition of "gospel" merely tells us what one single word means.
Nit-picky, I know, but a "definition" is not "The Gospel". "The Gospel" can be defined, but the word itself is not "The" gospel.
We've had this discussion before. Neither you or ER were impressed.
I remember you talking about this before. My question (with apologies if you've answered this before) is, WHY do you think there is this distinction? Based on what?
Is there a teacher or faith tradition that teaches this particular take? Something you figured on your own?
Based on what?
I may be away from my computer for a few days. Feel free to comment away, anyone.
""Based on what?"
Uhh... based on the Bible; context, structure, inference, logic.
The disciples asked "when" he was going to bring in "the Kingdom." They wanted their promised physical kingdom. Jesus told them "when" they could expect it. But the kingdom of God is within us... it is lived through us by the empowering of the Holy Spirit. The two gospels are not synonymous... yet. For many, after the tribulation. For ALL, shortly after the close of the Millennial Reign of Christ on earth. Everything with be made perfect again AFTER the last judgment, and both "gospels" will be made manifest together... made synonymous... can't have one without the other because both will be equally the same thing.
And it can't be that way until every heart is wiped clean of the taint of sin. For the believer, that happens at death, but made perfect at the resurrection. For everyone else, it never happens... their sin remains, their punishment endures. Age to age, world without end.
Hmmm... I don't know that I see that intention in the uses of the phrases in the Bible. Interesting theory, though.
Here's an interesting note: The phrase "Kingdom of heaven" appears in the Bible exclusively in the book of Matthew, at least in the NASB. I had not realized that before.
In the places where there are the same stories told in Matt and Luke (where Jesus is saying "repent for the kingdom of heaven is at hand...") Matthew uses "kingdom of heaven" whereas Mark and Luke use "kingdom of God."
Eric, do you suppose that means that Matthew meant one thing and the others meant something else, in telling the same story?
It seems more likely to me that it's an author's choice kind of thing, or maybe that Matthew was trying to emphasize something differently than the others.
Anyway... for what it's worth.
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