Craig, at his blog, recently invoked my name and his confusion about my actual positions on a variety of topics... heaven, hell, forgiveness, a Good God, what is and isn't just or good, and sin. He says he's working on a post on the topic and is still mulling it over and requested no comments yet while he mulls. This is what he said so far...
For example scripture tells us that we are "dead" in our sin, and the Jesus offers us "life" free from sin. Or scripture tells us that we are "slaves" to sin, and the Jesus bought our freedom from :bondage" or "slavery" to sin.
That language doesn't sound like there is room
for "trivial" or "minor" sins, does it? Death/Life or Slave/Free
sound like mutually exclusive categories don't they? Can you really be
95% alive and 5% dead? Or 95% free and 5% enslaved?
Craig is, I believe, operating out of some version of the human traditions of Calvinism or Reformed Theology. Because he rarely answers questions directly, it's hard to tell, but I believe he believes that all humans are "sinners" from birth, meaning NOT the obvious (that people commit "sins" from their first day on earth - a rather preposterous claim, seems to me, and certainly not provable) but that we're born with a theoretical "sin nature." And, I believe he believes, this "sin nature," means all humans are irredeemably corrupt and "sinful," incapable of doing good on our own.
I say, "theoretical," because this human tradition IS a human tradition, not a given. And there may be many permutations on what Calvinists/Craig believe on this human theory. It's hard to tell with Craig because, again, he rarely directly answers these sorts of questions.
I think everyone can agree that humanity, every one of us, is imperfect. Maybe many of us could even agree we're "prone to sin or do wrong..." It's objectively observable that none of us are perfect and that we all engage in at least some misdeeds and bad behavior in life, so I don't think that's in question by most of humanity, religious or not. But whether or not we have a "sin nature" is, of course, not proven nor provable, as far as I can see.
Now Craig begins, as many traditional conservative religionists do (whether Christian or another religion) by appeals to "scripture" to begin making his case.
Here, I believe, is where the problems begin.
As a Christian, I am a lover of the words found in the Bible, of the teachings of the Bible, of the language of the Bible. I strive to take the Bible more or less seriously. And I certainly strive to take the words of Jesus seriously, as I identify as a follower of Jesus.
But as any serious student of the Bible will affirm (and this is whether or not they're traditional or not, whether they're conservative or liberal or otherwise) that the words found in the Bible are only as solid as the interpretation that people reading those words assign to them. If a "christian" says that God never condemns slavery and indeed, commands slavery in at least some cases, and if that christian decided, "Therefore, slavery is not immoral and indeed, even god-ordained!" then most of the world and most of Christianity will say that this is not so and that guy's crazy, using "scripture" to advance a set of bad behaviors - evil, even. I believe most conservative Christians would say the same thing. They would say he's not interpreting the Bible correctly, I believe. I certainly know conservatives who would say that.
Thus, when reading the words of the Bible - if you value them - they are only as good as the interpretation you assign to them.
Secondly, most conservative and other Christians would, I believe, gladly affirm that not every line in the Bible is to be taken literally. They would affirm the obvious, observable reality that there are portions of the Bible - maybe vast portions, even - that are poetic, figurative or otherwise use metaphors or non-literal ideas. Thus, "the four corners of the earth," does not mean that the earth is a flat rectangle/square. When Jesus tells the rich man what he must do to be saved is "sell his belongings, give it to the poor and follow him," conservatives (and probably most progressives who love the Bible) would say that this was more of a situational or figurative idea, not a universal command. I could go on and on with examples in the Bible that conservatives would agree is metaphorical, not literal.
Thus, with ANY LINE in the Bible, one must begin with the question of, "is this some sort of literal command or notion? Or is imagery at play here?"
And now, with that prelude, here we are with Craig's list of questions.
For example scripture tells us that we are "dead" in our sin,
and that
Jesus offers us "life" free from sin.
Of course, these are clearly figurative words to describe human relationship with sin. No one is literally "dead in sin..." What would that even mean? Their heart keeps beating, their blood pumping, their brain thinking, hopefully.
And "life free from sin..." what does that mean? Do we become perfect and sinless? No, observably not.
Craig continues...
That language doesn't sound like there is room
for "trivial" or "minor" sins, does it?
And I ask, as I often do... ? What? The Bible DOES use language like "we're all dead in sin..." For instance, this line from Paul in Ephesians...
And you were dead in the trespasses and sins in which you once walked,
following the course of this world, following the prince of the power of the air,
the spirit that is now at work in the sons of disobedience—
among whom we all once lived in the passions of our flesh,
carrying out the desires of the body and the mind, and
were by nature children of wrath, like the rest of mankind.
But God, being rich in mercy, because of the great love with which he loved us,
even when we were dead in our trespasses,
made us alive together with Christ...
All kinds of language that sounds, on the face of it, quite figurative. We didn't "walk in sin" and what or who is this "prince of the power of the air" that "you" were following? (Of course, in the context it's speaking of "the devil..." and who or what is that?). What does "dead in trespasses" mean? Or what does "children of wrath, like the rest of manking" mean?
So, first of all: "That doesn't sound like there is room for trivial or minor sins...?" Craig asks. Yes, of course it does. It does not rationally or biblically preclude the notion that some "sins" are minor or relatively minor and some are greater.
And here is where we who, like me, were raised conservative start going down a bad path, rationally and biblically, it seems to me.
The conservative tradition is trying to take these sorts of passages fairly literally because that is their tradition (was mine). Then, they say, "So, how can we make literal sense of this?" And from there, they say, "Well, what it MUST MEAN is that we are all - all of humanity, from the newborn infant to the mentally ill, to those with extreme intellectual delays to every day people who are, on the face of it, good and decent people living good and decent lives, helping out others, taking care of their families and friends and even strangers... that ALL of humanity is hopelessly "sinful" and even "evil," entirely incapable of doing anything good outside of God. And that even the smallest misdeed - for instance, taking the last cookie from the bag when you know your wife was wanting that cookie... that low level of selfishness - is a great evil or sin and that their notion of "god," can NOT ABIDE that "sin," and that "sin" must be punished not just with an appropriate response, but with an eternity of torture or torment in "hell..."
"Even just one sin will send you to hell, where the fire you are burning in is NEVER quenched and your torment goes on and on for ALL of eternity!" the fiery evangelists regularly preached to us when I was growing up in that world.
But think about it: One sin? Eating that last cookie you KNEW your wife wanted... that "deserves" an eternity of torture? How is that rational? How is that just, moral or good?
Because we, as humanity, recognize the notion that justice, to be justice, must deal with misdeeds in an appropriate manner. I sure as heck shouldn't have taken that last cookie that I knew my wife wanted! Shame on me for doing that! It was wrong!! But... if the state made it a law criminalizing taking that last cookie and the punishment for that small selfishness was to be tortured for the rest of your life, I'd reckon that ALL of humanity would call such a punishment a great and horrible evil. And they'd be right.
So, even though the Bible uses words speaking about "dead in sin," that just doesn't preclude rationally or biblically noting the reality of the range of sin/misdeeds and that, indeed, some behaviors are relatively minor and some are truly a great evil.
If we relegate the selfishly taking the last cookie to a great an awful evil, then that has to minimize the seriousness of rape or genocide. And just as a point of reason, it does not reasonably follow, Craig's claim that there's no such thing as degrees of awfulness of bad behavior and that, indeed, some misdeeds are literally actually relatively minor.
That's just a small start at Craig's small start of thinking about sin and the principles I'm pointing to today:
I. Of course, we can recognize the notion that there are small misdeeds and great evils that might all be considered "sin;"
II. That there is nothing unbiblical about this. And certainly nothing irrational or unmoral about it;
III. That indeed, it would be irrational and immoral to say otherwise;
And additionally...
IV. That just because there are phrases and ideas gleaned from the Bible that traditionalists have traditionally understood one way does NOT mean that they are understanding them correctly;
V. And that understanding any moral idea or biblical notion correctly and rationally is a vital starting point.
To Craig's other questions...
Death/Life or Slave/Free sound like mutually exclusive categories don't
they?
Can you really be 95% alive and 5% dead? Or 95% free and 5%
enslaved?
I would respond by saying, that first, we must rightly understand what these ideas mean and what they don't mean. Is there some figurative language at play here? Yes, of course there is. Is Paul trying to say that it's a fact that those who aren't "saved" (and what does THAT mean?) are literally (somehow) dead in their sin and "incapable" of doing any good? Clearly that can't be the case because we see what conservative Christians would say are "unsaved" people doing great good in their lives. So, what does it mean? And EVEN IF they could prove somehow (and they can't) what Paul meant objectively, does that mean that Paul was correct?
Which leads to another principle:
VI. When reading a sacred text, if we are interpreting its words to mean something that is, on the face of it, irrational or greatly immoral or objectively false (ie, that "unsaved people" can do NO good actions), then we should question that interpretation.
That is, if we value the Bible (or any sacred text) as speaking The Truth.
And that's all for now.
23 comments:
Craig wants to reinstitute a law of the body. He needs to see what he thinks is right behavior because he has not faith the spirit of god. He, Craig himself, needs to approve. St Paul says Craig is a slave to the law of the body. Apart from the law there is no sin. The law brings sin, and both are death.
That explains Craig, Marshal, and the other goons just so. They need to be woke so, so, so, so badly.
"For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus has set you free from the law of sin and of death."
___
Therefore there is now no condemnation for those who are in Christ Jesus. For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus has set you free from the law of sin and of death. For God has done what the law, weakened by the flesh, could not do: by sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh and to deal with sin, he condemned sin in the flesh, so that the just requirement of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not according to the flesh but according to the Spirit. For those who live according to the flesh set their minds on the things of the flesh, but those who live according to the Spirit set their minds on the things of the Spirit. To set the mind on the flesh is death, but to set the mind on the Spirit is life and peace. For this reason the mind that is set on the flesh is hostile to God; it does not submit to God’s law—indeed, it cannot, and those who are in the flesh cannot please God.
But you are not in the flesh; you are in the Spirit, since the Spirit of God dwells in you. Anyone who does not have the Spirit of Christ does not belong to him. But if Christ is in you, then the body is dead because of sin, but the Spirit is life because of righteousness. If the Spirit of him who raised Jesus from the dead dwells in you, he who raised Christ Jesus from the dead will give life to your mortal bodies also through his Spirit that dwells in you.
So then, brothers and sisters, we are obligated, not to the flesh, to live according to the flesh— for if you live according to the flesh, you will die, but if by the Spirit you put to death the deeds of the body, you will live. For all who are led by the Spirit of God are children of God.
As if being "woke" is a bad thing. Heck, it's biblical!
Here is another answer I've addressed at Craig's that I'll put here, as well.
Craig...
2. My lack of proof for something I haven't claimed doesn't mitigate your responsibility to prove things you have claimed.
What I have claimed on this are THREE clear, observable and indisputable things:
1. We have NO OBJECTIVE AUTHORITATIVE way to "prove" that our opinions about morality are objectively correct. None of us do. You sure don't.
1a. We likewise have no objective, authoritative way to prove that our opinions about what various sacred texts say are objectively correct. None of us. Not you, not human conservative traditions. You just don't, as a demonstrable fact (demonstrable that you all have NEVER proven such claims authoritatively and objectively).
2. Nonetheless and in spite of that reality, it is important for us to TRY to make moral decisions. A world of moral anarchy, where rape and murder and genocide are okay, is not an acceptable option.
3. Fortunately, we humans are clearly able to make moral decisions and find some moral common ground, even though we can't objectively prove it. Again, this is demonstrable, observable reality.
Don't let the perfect (which we don't have) be the enemy of the good (which we CAN experience).
More that I've answered at Craig's...
Craig asked...
So, can we agree that any discussion of sin and it's seriousness starts from the place where we've all failed to follow the first and greatest commandment?
No. I think any discussion of sin needs to be understood (at least for Christians) of an understanding of the Way of Grace that God operates within. For a God of Grace, he's not operating under a criminal law/rules/gotcha! system. This seems rational and obvious and biblical, as well.
"The Sabbath was made for humanity, not humanity for the Sabbath." We weren't made to be little rule followers. We were made to love, forgive, enjoy, celebrate and live within the Way of Grace.
But I do agree that it's a good question to ask.
Can we agree that failing to follow this commandment is a sin against YHWH?
No. Certainly not universally.
Again, the person who is entirely unaware of a relatively unknown (to them) "rule," can't be held accountable in any rational sense for "breaking" that "rule." They literally didn't break it.
The person who goes to a new country that has a cultural rule or law that demands you take off your shoes when you enter a particular room should not be held accountable for not taking off their shoes. A judge or jury who would punish them for breaking the "rule" that they didn't know about would be an unjust judge or jury.
The newborn child doesn't know there is a "rule" that says they "must love God with all their hearts..." The irreligious person who is not familiar with the teachings of this particular religion who doesn't follow that rule can't reasonably be held accountable. Etc.
Having said that, what of those of us who are aware that there is a line in a sacred book that says "Love God with all your heart," and what if we accept that we believe we should do so.
I think it's safe to say we agree that no one perfectly loves God, even those of us who want to. But is it a "sin" for imperfect people to not love perfectly? What would loving God with our whole hearts look like if we were doing it perfectly? What are the sub-rules around that rule that would enable us to "follow the rule" "Perfectly..."?
Again, none of this is rational if you're operating out of a system of Grace.
Humanity was not made for the Sabbath, the Sabbath was made for humanity. In a system of love and grace, I'm not angry or judgmental against my children if they fail to "love me with their whole hearts" in "perfect" manner (again, what does that look like?).
Maybe some of our differences is that I'm fundamentally believing we are under a system of life, love and grace, while you perhaps are operating under a more "criminal" mindset when it comes to "sin" and more of a rules based religion rather than a grace-based one?
And I know you'll reject that out of hand (I hope you will) because that's contrary to even conservative beliefs. But think about it... is it possible you're approaching sin in the Pharisaical, "YA GOTTA FOLLOW THE RULES AND WE WILL TELL YOU HOW TO FOLLOW THEM!" approach?
I'm not making an accusation. I'm asking a question.
Craig can’t even get past the truth that god isn’t a Him. Or has no body. Or cannot be in “a place” whatsoever. The Trinity isn’t a concept of law or fact. The Trinity is a human conception of divine being.
But the goons have no spiritual facility with the idea of being. They’re fixated on behavior. Which is completely ass backwards in both gospel and logic.
That’s the bottom line as to why you are not having a dialogue with Craig. It’s a ship and a floating plank passing in the night.
Is it not a rule that God is Him? Then it must be a law. God has testicles.
Craig...
It's the tendency for humans to conclude that this rule doesn't really apply to me, because I really need to break if for a really good reason. It's our focus on our selves.
Of course, this raises the question: Is it wrong to "focus on ourselves..."? Is it wrong to take time to take care of ourselves? To consider what we need so that we can better be friends and helpers to others?
If it is okay to, at least some degree, focus on ourselves (and I say the answer to that is obviously, Yes, as well as many health and mental health experts, sociologists and others), then we imperfect human beings have to balance being selfless and giving for the sake of God and others with also taking care of ourselves in a healthy manner.
And you know what? People who are not perfect and not able to perfectly juggle such delicate, hard-to-define notions will sometimes choose to take actions that land on the "too selfish side."
Maybe I've had a really bad day and I know my wife wants that last cookie, but it strikes me that, at this moment, I need that cookie for my mental health. It will make me feel just a little better over all the chaos that happened that day. Is that landing on the selfish side? After all, we can always get cookies tomorrow (as you noted several times) and it's not a make or break cookie for my wife.
You see, there's the thing: There is NO ONE CLEAR "MESSAGE FROM GOD" answer to that question. It's vague and perhaps not answerable and, in this case, pretty trivial, literally pretty trivial.
Do you have any hard data to suggest otherwise? Do you have some message from God that says it's NOT trivial?
I don't think you do.
More answers to Craig at his blog...
Craig...
I would argue that the only entity with the ability, authority, and temperament, to establish a universal, consistent, objective moral code would be a being like YHWH.
Okay, but GOD is not telling us what is and isn't objectively moral on each of the various moral questions we may have. God's just not.
From there, you may want to argue, "But God has given us the Bible, and THAT is what God wants us to use to understand morality..." (is that what you're claiming?)
But then, first of all, where is the proof of this?
Secondly, WHOSE interpretation of the Bible on the various points are we going to rely upon? Craig's? Dan's? Billy Graham's? WHO gets to make these calls? The pope? The Southern Baptist church? Craig's particular church?
WHO?
Third of all, given our imperfect nature, who among us will understand these moral rules perfectly? And how will we know that this person (group? denomination) has understood morality perfectly? Or will they only understand PART of these moral rules perfectly and if so, how do we know which ones they are understanding perfectly??
And once we reach that point, it then becomes a question of: WHO SAYS that Craig gets to make these calls? Or the churches or human traditions that Craig agrees with? On what basis and authority? That THEY assure us their human traditions are the "right ones..." Says WHO?
Additionally, "the Bible" never addresses the last cookie question (and the endless variations on it, potentially). How do we know what is the "objective" answer to those questions? The Bible never tackles nuclear bombs, abortion, LGBTQ rights, bicycles vs gas cars vs mass transit, etc, etc. What of all the areas the Bible doesn't address, where do we get "objective" answers? Based on what?
Do you see the endless holes in your (perhaps) argument? Or do you have some other fall back beyond just simplistically saying, "the Bible is our rule book..."?
Addressing more of Craig's non-answers and vague nothingness on his blog...
So many words. So few direct, clear answers.
Craig...
Demonstrated that I'm wrong.
Wrong about what? Are you saying that you DON'T think it is easily observable and completely rational that sins and misdeeds can be considered greater and lesser?
WHAT IS YOUR POSITION? Take a stand. make yourself clear.
But how about this: Let me guess that your position is that YOU BELIEVE that GOD does not view morality in the sense of counting ANY sins as "minor..."
Is that your position?
If so, do you acknowledge that you can't prove it objectively?
Can you acknowledge that many rational people would say, "OF COURSE, there are levels of right and wrong! Of course, there are minor sins!"
Can you acknowledge that you can't prove them wrong?
Craig...
2. Demonstrated that there are "levels" of sin that YHWH deals with each level differently.
Nor have you demonstrated that God deals with all sin the same and that God thinks that EVEN ONE (what reasonable people would consider) minor sin in a human's life is worthy of eternal torment.
3. Provided any sort of rational alternative.
Alternative to WHAT?
I'm saying quite clearly that YOU DO NOT HAVE AN OBJECTIVE, authoritative, universal moral code that applies to everyone. You don't have it. I don't have it. We can't PROVE our moral ideas objectively.
Fact one.
I'm saying that NONETHELESS, it is good and rational and advisable to come to agreement on moral notions to at least some degree, EVEN IF we can't prove it.
I'm saying that saying, "It's not provable (or worse - it IS provable, but I'm not going to give you the proof!) so let's just have moral anarchy in this world!" is not a rational or moral option.
So, in LIGHT of these ideas, I recognize that we who are created in the image of God with an understanding of morality (imperfect in our human lives, but nonetheless, real) have an obligation to try to NOT live in amoral anarchy, but to come to some agreements about what is an isn't moral, good, or bad.
THAT is the alternative to the apparent amoral chaos you're advocating.
OR, if you're NOT advocating amoral chaos, then what ARE you suggesting? That we all listen to your "objective" morality that you're not willing to prove? What alternative are YOU offering? I'm offering an alternative: Try to use our God-given reasoning to understand morality as best we can as individuals and as groups and societies. That IS an alternative. What are you offering?
More answers to Craig...
Craig...
you show me the data that there are "minor" or "trivial" sins, I'll think about it. But it's ridiculous to think that you'd expect me to prove a counter claim I haven't specifically made, when you won't prove your explicit claim.
In the bible, we see the imperfect and fallible Apostle James say...
"Now listen, you rich people, weep and wail
because of the misery that is coming on you.
Your wealth has rotted, and
moths have eaten your clothes.
Your gold and silver are corroded.
Their corrosion will testify against you and
eat your flesh like fire.
You have hoarded wealth in the last days.
Look! The wages you failed to pay
the workers who mowed your fields are crying out against you.
The cries of the harvesters have reached the ears of the Lord Almighty.
You have lived on earth in luxury and self-indulgence.
You have fattened yourselves in the day of slaughter.
You have condemned and murdered the innocent one...!"
Even though he was an imperfect human with imperfect reasoning and an imperfect understanding of Justice, he CLEARLY-AS-HELL denounced those who were causing harm.
Why?
Because the Bible makes clear, over and over -
JUST AS OUR HUMAN MORAL REASONING DOES -
That it's wrong to take advantage of/cause harm to/oppress the poor and marginalized.
James doesn't claim to have any special revelation from God or "proof" that he's right and the wealthy oppressors are wrong. He just took a stand because he thought it was the right thing to do.
Why? The text does not say but I'm guessing because he used his moral reasoning, which is common to humanity. Which we can see by the way that we can so easily agree on so much on matters of morality, from culture to culture and age to age.
Not perfectly, not entirely, but reasonably and, I'd say, increasingly better.
And we can conclude this, in part, because the bible makes it clear that we all have God's will written on our hearts and minds, but that's a fallible interpretation... I further conclude it because we can see it, observe it, measure it.
Our understanding of morality and justice are not perfect (observably, demonstrably), but it's not some unknowable mystery, either. We all generally agree, "Do unto others..."
Now, given that you can't prove your "objective morality" to anyone in any objective, demonstrable manner, what else would you have us do? Will you condemn James for taking such a strong stand against oppression by the wealthy?
More questions to go unanswered.
More...
I said...
"Okay, but GOD is not telling us what is and isn't objectively moral on each of the various moral questions we may have. God's just not."
Craig responded...
1. That's quite a claim, prove it.
IF someone is making an incredible claim with no proof to support it, the onus is on THAT person to support the claim, not the person who says, "There's no evidence to support that claim."
If you said that purple monkeys with wings live on the dark side of the moon and I respond, saying that this is ridiculous and stupidly false... you don't get to say, "PROVE IT." YOU would be the one making the crazy-sounding claim where no one has any data to prove it.
DO you believe that God IS "telling us what is and isn't objectively moral on each of the various moral questions we may have."
I'M saying that there is NO KNOWN DATA to support that claim. YOU have to support it if you want to make it. I'm saying it's a BS claim.
That ball's in your court.
Craig...
2. Isn't it possible that YHWH has given us enough information, and general principles to allow us to reach reasonable conclusions about what He might prefer us to do?
This is PRECISELY what I'm saying. We have sufficient insight and information to make REASONABLE conclusions about moral questions. God has given us a brain. God has given us the ability to reason (most of us). We CAN reach reasonable moral conclusions. That's what I've been saying.
Are you agreeing with me now?
OR, are you saying, "there are words in the Bible and if you interpret them the way I and my traditionalist comrades do, then God has given you enough info to make reasonable moral decisions..."? And if so, who made you and conservatives/traditionalists the arbiters?
Are you limiting the ability to make moral decisions as ONLY based on what is in the Bible?
If so, are you saying that ANY moral interpretations based on biblical reading are all equally reasonable to make moral decisions?
Or are you limiting it to only SOME interpretations and if so, which ones? Based on what criteria? According to whose authority?
Craig and Marshal thrill to hate on the ridiculous Creflo Dollar and his raising money for Abrams and voting rights.
But somehow can’t bring to their mind Jerry Falwell, Jr, willing and paying cuckold to a “pool boy” and endorser of Trump.
Their willful blindness to what actual, committed sinning looks like strips them of all moral credibility.
This is all from Craig, and it's just strange...
"Dan has been asking me to "prove" the existence of an objective moral code, and I've given it a lot of thought. I believe that I have a pretty good and simple way to make a reasonable case for one.
However, I realized that the problem with making that case is Dan will demand that I "prove" my underlying premises. Which are as follows.
1. In order to have an objective, universal, moral law, there needs to be a "Lawgiver" that is in a position to do so.
2. As a Christian, I would posit that YHWH as revealed in scripture is that "Lawgiver".
3. As a Christian, I would posit that The Bible is our best possible option to leaen about YHWH, and about His moral law.
Dan will likely, as he has done in the past say something like, "While I believe something similar, you cannot prove those things to be True.".
So, while I believe and have shared with Dan multiple excellent arguments in favor of the existence of YHWH, I've never seen him engage with any, or change his hunch. Based on my past experience the likelihood of Dan choosing not to focus on the lack of "proof", is small. Therefore I'm forced to conclude that it's a waste of my time to continue."
Craig says he has - somewhere - the ability to objectively prove an objective system of morality... but he finds it strange - offensive,
even - that I expect him to objectively prove what he says he can prove...??
And then he offers three ENTIRELY unsupported subjective opinions as his, what? Partial "proof..."?
I think we may be bumping up against his cognitive dissonance. It appears he is recognizing he absolutely can't prove his human traditions opinions and yet cannot say out loud what is clear. He can't prove his hunches. Not only that, he can't even come close to proving his hunches.
That was me, Dan. I don't know why blogger is not recognizing my log in.
More...
Craig...
"However, I realized that the problem with making that case is Dan will demand that I "prove" my underlying premises. Which are as follows."
If you're claiming to have a provable objective system of morality, what's wrong with asking for proof?
Is it possible you're starting to recognize you have no way of objectively proving an objective moral code? That's what happened to me, which is when I stopped making the claim.
Returning to your third point, EVEN IF some agreed with your first two unproven theories, how does the third point advance you to an objectively proven system of morality?
What does that even mean in these theories of yours... that everyone who reads the Bible in the right way, that they'll have objectively proven moral answers to all questions of morality?
I don't think you think that.
So, what does it mean, given that we'll still be imperfect humans with flawed and imperfect understanding, right?
Or do you believe in a subset of perfect Christians?
It’s pretty simple. If Craig is committed to the concept of law as the principle truth, and the Bible is a record of law giving, and He is the Lawgiver…
… then God has testicles.
If Craig says that ultimately a god doesn’t have gender, then the game is up: Scripture is mediated by human minds and human communications using human metaphorical language. The Law is then only approximate and framed by human limitations.
And Craig is left without his rigid need for control.
All we have as the bedrock of life is faith in Christ and to love as he loved. And that is all that Christian faith asks of us. But Craig is too fragile for a spiritual life… too brittle to live life as a christian person.
More...
Craig...
"1. In order to have an objective, universal, moral law, there needs to be a "Lawgiver" that is in a position to do so...."
A question that this unsupported premise begs is, who says we HAVE an objective, universal, moral law? Where is the evidence for it?
I mean, I get that we may WISH for it... but what if it isn't a thing? A reality that's available in an imperfect world?
We might similarly hold a premise that, In order for humans to fly through the air without the aid of wings or mechanical devices, there needs to be a Flight Giver who enables that to happen...
But the premise fails because it's just not a given in the real world.
More...
Craig...
"Where we don't agree is that you seem to want to apply your subjective (and all the rest) moral code AS IF it was objective..."
No. You're flatly, observable factually mistaken.
What I'M saying is that we can REASONABLY agree on moral notions (laws, codes, rules, whatever). I'm stating that morality is REASONABLE.
I've been abundantly clear that none of us can objectively authoritatively prove our moral notions. A point which you completely prove by your whole-hearted inability to even begin to provide.
Now, do you agree that you can't "prove" your moral laws?
As to your videos... WTH? [Note: Craig pointed to three videos that spoke of cosmological "proofs" that begin to try to make a case for God... but nothing about a moral code] Do you think they are providing objective proof of an objective moral code??
If so, WHERE?
More...
I'm guessing you're thinking if you can point to reason-based "proofs" of a Creator God, that this gets us to some sort of moral code that can be objectively known to at least some human (??? It really would help if you'd clarify what it is you're arguing FOR, as opposed to empty gainsaying of my comments)... but it doesn't. EVEN IF we concede a Creator God (which I, of course, believe), that doesn't get us to a moral code that can be...
A. Objectively known or
B. Partially objectively known
C. To all human, or
D. Some human...
Or whatever it is you're arguing in favor of. Perhaps make clear what it is your belief is.
We see how Craig’s preferred black “voice” has amped up anti-Semitic feeling in our society.
He really knows how to pick ‘em.
More...
Craig...
It's fascinating to me that even though I've agreed with you that you DO NOT NEED THE BIBLE TO construct a subjective, imperfect, changeable, localized, moral code, and that this moral code can be imposed on a minority by a majority
Not what I've said. At the same time, IF the majority of the people recognize how evil it is for men to rape children, do you think we should NOT impose that moral code on the minority (like you, I guess?) that don't understand that it's wrong to rape children?
But here is the main point:
I asked...
"DO YOU HAVE AN OBJECTIVE MORAL LAW, ONE THAT YOU CAN OBJECTIVELY PROVE IS OBJECTIVELY FACTUAL?"
And you responded...
Not in my possession, no.
So, you have NO WAY of objectively proving any moral code and you're acknowledging that?
Good for you. That's a step towards reality.
AND you don't think we can reasonably use reason-based/harm-based/human-rights based conclusions to impose (either by law or by culture) condemnation (even if it's not provable) on child rapists and rich oppressors, is that what you're saying?
Are you saying you don't think ANY bad behaviors (that we may not be able to objectively prove, which you acknowledge now) should be condemned?
Or, if you DO think some behaviors (child rape?) can and should be condemned harshly, WHY do you think that, since you can't prove it?
OR, are you saying that you DO think it's reasonable to make moral judgments against others (child rapists, for instance) even if it's not provable?
Such a strange, strange conversation.
We now agree that neither of us can PROVE our hunches about morality and YOU (but not me) appear to be saying that you have no reason to strongly condemn child rapists. Strange, strange, strange.
Last one because I'm done with Craig.
I asked...
"DO YOU HAVE AN OBJECTIVE MORAL LAW, ONE THAT YOU CAN OBJECTIVELY PROVE IS OBJECTIVELY FACTUAL?"
And you responded...
Not in my possession,
no.
You clearly answered my direct question (finally!) with a slightly confusing but still clear, "NO." But seeking clarification, I asked for, well, clarification:
"So, you have NO WAY of objectively proving any moral code and you're acknowledging that?"
To which you responded...
No. I haven't said that.
And with that bit of inane, moronic, degenerate, un-Christian, anti-reason cowardice, I'm done.
I've asked and asked you to give clear answers and you ALWAYS come back with these vague sort of answers and half-answers and obfuscation and you're just straining grace to a breaking point.
Repent. Grow up. Be an adult. Or at least, stop with the cowardice and perversions of decency and reason.
If you ever want to answer directly and clearly, just let me know. I AM curious, but will play these childish games only so long.
Lord have mercy on Craig and the modern "conservative" "traditional" religious cowards.
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